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A few hunches: trying to understand depersonalization

1118 Views 6 Replies 3 Participants Last post by  Dreamer
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For the last few days my mind has been racing with thoughts. I find it difficult to stay focussed on one idea so please bare with me (as always) through this post. I'm discovering that talking about my ideas or how I feel without being shy can be very beneficial. Truly, I've never really done it until this week. I think DP has alot to do with the access you allow the world to have to you, to understand your individuality. I told my best friend everything and she has been really supportive. I'm constructing a new reality by saying what I really feel finally. Again, I can't say thanks enough for this board. I've read many threads here and learned so much from your experiences. I'm less scared about what I'm going through now.

Some people have raised difficult questions about DP, some even pretty thought provoking. Let me contribute to this board by offering you the latter. Now, keep in mind as you read this that I'm famous amongst my friends for my ability to construct conspiracy theories. I may just be lost in my own little world :wink: :wink: , but I like to believe I'm not so off track So view the following as pure entertainment if you like :lol:

There are many things that have puzzled me about what I "have". 10 years ago I was told I had "depression", then it became "looks like bipolar", now after reading the literature I'm leaning for "depersonalization". I talked to my therapist for the second time in two days and we both agreed there's definitely cause to think that I may indeed be experiencing this.

Interesting things I've discovered over the last few days:

I took 5 kinds of anti-depressants for my "depression" over the years. I discover that 4 our of 5 (the 5th I could find no information) have "depersonalization" as a side effect.

Hmmm.

Is it a coincidence that anti-depressants all have "suic***" or "suicidal thoughts" listed in their potential side effect list as well? I've wondered about this for a long time. Who make up that small group (I do for one) that reacts to anti-depressants perhaps both by having suicidal thoughts and "zone outs".... How come there hasn't been more research done into this I wonder...

Which brings me to: the class-actions suits against pharmaceuticals for the undisclosure of evidence that suicidal tendencies correlate more highly in young people as a side-effect. What do those suits and subsequent rulings say about the potential side-effects of anti-depressants on society at large. Who in the scientific community is asking "WHY do youth respond this way" and "WHAT is it about adulthood that lowers that incidence?"

A possibility: Because youth's brain is not fully developed yet to respond critically to events in their life. Because adults have more life experience to handle those shifts in emotions. :idea: :?:

I keep in mind there are few absolutes in life, including explanations. ..

Another thing I wonder about is: what is the real difference between psychotropic drugs like ecstasy, cocaine, etc, and psychotropic drugs like the prozacs and Co. How do either type of drug affect the brain differently?

Which brings me to: why does it say on the bottles of pick-your-antidepressant "It is thought that depression is caused by a chemical imbalance"? Why doesn't it say "depression is caused by a chemical imbalance" ? How come the people who advanced the theory that depression was caused by this never actually offered up any proof. Usually when you have a theory you need to prove or disprove it before pursuing the research further....

What is the most profitable drug man has ever invented? (ok, this last one is leaning toward the conspiracy theory. I'll leave it at that)

I know, I'm thinking too much about things that I'm probably not likely to find the full answers to. I can't help it. :?

I'm not saying that DP is caused by anti-depressants by the way. I'm suggesting that maybe that small percentage of people who have adverse psychological responses to the drugs may have something very much in common (maybe a human brain... maybe it's not good to put stuff in there that wasn't there to begin with just because "it works for most people"...). Even though I took many anti-depressants I've always been suspicious that they really cured anything. Psychoanalysis has helped me far more than the drugs. To me they seem like a band-aid... Evidence I'm finding seems to point to the possibility that they may actually be doing alot more harm then the pharmaceutical industry which has gotten rich off it would care to admit. But maybe I'm getting ahead of myself.

I think the trigger for DP is in my childhood. I was molested by someone in my family and I know that event was very much an influence in my obsessive behaviour as an adult. I wonder if there isn't something about anti-depressants that can amplify the kind of primary DP caused by childhood trauma.

So many factors to understand a story.

I hope I have not bored you with my rambling.

One last question... how many of the DP people here have had suicidal thoughts, and how many of those took anti-depressants?

Good day,
Nancy
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I took 5 kinds of anti-depressants for my "depression" over the years. I discover that 4 our of 5 (the 5th I could find no information) have "depersonalization" as a side effect.
Almost certainly this isn't considered to be a lasting side-effect, but rather something that some people will experience while on the medication - probably in high doses.

Another thing I wonder about is: what is the real difference between psychotropic drugs like ecstasy, cocaine, etc, and psychotropic drugs like the prozacs and Co. How do either type of drug affect the brain differently?
The chemicals in them have completely different functions.

The modern antidepressants SSRIs, which you're probably referring to here, alter the "balance" of the neurotransmitter serotonin in the brain by changing the function of how it is "taken back up" after dispersal through the brain, or something like that - I don't pretend to know what I'm on about.

Ecstasy could be seen as similar in some respects, in that it does cause the brain to "dump" a massive load of serotonin in one go - though dopamine is also involved apparently.

Stuff like Cannais is very much different, though I'm not sure exactly why.

Which brings me to: why does it say on the bottles of pick-your-antidepressant "It is thought that depression is caused by a chemical imbalance"? Why doesn't it say "depression is caused by a chemical imbalance" ? How come the people who advanced the theory that depression was caused by this never actually offered up any proof. Usually when you have a theory you need to prove or disprove it before pursuing the research further....
It's not the case that they have no proof. They certainly have evidence, even it's not considered by all to be entirely conclusive.

The reason they say "is thought to be" is because they are being scientifically concise. Scientists admit that their attempts to understand the world could well be - and according to some probably are - quite wrong. Thus their theories are only "useful" insofar as the "work" and "make sense" to us. They're not conisdered the be-all-and-end-all of truth.

So no, your criticism isn't fair.

Psychoanalysis has helped me far more than the drugs. To me they seem like a band-aid...
Oh I definitely agree.

But band-aids help, at least some of the time...
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I understand that only 'some' people are going to get this effect, but I don't think it has anything to do with taking high doses. Aren't side-effects calculated on the reaction of patients to regular prescribed doses? The percentage of people who get this (according to the company of course) is very very small. Just like suicidal tendencies as a SE happens to a very very small percentage. The only reason I brought it up is that I wonder why some people react to anti-depressants this way, and if there isn't a commonality between people who experience this.
Certainly, that's a strong possibility.

If these drugs affect certain people in a certain way, for instance, in your example of giving some people DP, it makes sense that there's something in common between those affected in such a way.

What's not so certain, and almost impossible to ascertain, is whether or not this commonality between those with unusual reactions is physiological - in the sense that their brains have a certain physical "make up" slightly different to most others - or whether it's simply psychological.

I expect it's the former, but the reality is that we know so little about the brain that anything we argue regarding it is almost entirely conjecutre.

The only thing we know for sure is that drugs increase levels of neurotransmitters.... That doesn't say anything about the cause. The way it usually goes in science is you come up with a theory (eg. chemicals imbalance causes depression), you test it, you write your observations. You do this a few times. If after doing it a few times you've still not been able to prove your theory, how can you go on to manufacture the product?
Granted, no one's certain that the cause of depression is some "chemical imbalance" - I myself don't perceive this to be the case, least not for all.

But it doesn't follow from this point that you shouldn't be able to manufacture the product.

The reason for this is that, irrespective of what the underlying causes of depression are, for some people, antidepressant medication works. Not for all, no. But for quite a few. On this basis, it "makes sense" to manufacture it, because these drugs do benefit a large number of people.

I'm a little worried about repercussions of this long term. Things like more and more kids taking Ritalin or anti-depressants for example. This culture of psychological-problem-but-biological-cause. I think we take wayyy too much meds today, but it's normal, we're bombarded with ads about meds all the time.
Oh I agree with this point entirely.

But likewise, I think that the "anti-medication" arguments that some people put forward go too far.

The fact remains that, for some, medication works. We don't need to ascertain whether the cause is biological or psychological to know that this is the case.

I read somewhere recently, what if the cause of depression is not low levels of neurotransmitters in itself, but rather, that a person's psychological response to the world (happiness, sadness, anxiety) is out of sync with the way the majority of society responds (i.e. most people do not become depressed). Is this hypothesis any more far-fetched idea than the other explanation of causation?
No, it's not at all.

But, as I have said, it's one thing to dispute a cause; it's quite another to dispute what "works" for solving the problem.

Another question: can psychotherapy raise levels of neurotransmitters? How come some people are able to get symptoms of depression to subside through therapy?
Before I say anything, I'm not the expert on this stuff - hopefully some of the more psychologically educated on this board will help me answer these questions.

That said, I can offer my "two cents".

First off, I'll say that I think in the majority of cases, depression is primarily psychologically based, as opposed to physiologically based (though there are certainly cases where depression is demonstrably entirely physiological. To give one example, many heavy long-term users of ecstasy in the 90s are now dependent on SSRIs to feel "normal" because their neurotransmitters are entirely "out of whack".)

I don't think we can know if psychotherapy raises the levels of neurotrasmitters or not. If it does, that would imply that somehow the levels of neurotransmitters that the brain "puts out" is dependent on our thoughts and feelings, which seems a little odd to me.

Nevertheless psychotherapy can work. The reason people are able to get results with it is because, as I've said, for many - probably most -the cause of the problem is psychological not physiological.

It nevertheless seems true that boosting serotonin makes people feel better, even if it doesn't solve the underying issues in the first place.
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